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chest pain

Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on chest pain.

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A 60-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to his back. He describes the pain as tearing in nature. His blood pressure is 180/100 mmHg in the right arm and 160/90 mmHg in the left arm. On examination, there is a new diastolic murmur. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. He reports that the pain started acutely this morning and has been gradually worsening. He has a history of atrial fibrillation and has been taking warfarin for the past 5 years. He denies any recent trauma or injury. On examination, his vital signs are: heart rate 110 bpm, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, respiratory rate 28 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation 88% on room air. Auscultation reveals decreased breath sounds on the right side. The patient is pale and diaphoretic. A chest X-ray was initially performed, followed by the image shown. Given the clinical presentation and the findings on the image, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

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A 67-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes is scheduled for elective cholecystectomy due to symptomatic gallstones. During the preoperative assessment, he mentions experiencing mild chest discomfort during exertion over the past few weeks. What is the most appropriate next step in his preoperative management?

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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 78-year-old male on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents with acute dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain. His INR is 7.0. A chest CT is performed (image attached). After initial resuscitation, what is the MOST appropriate intervention?

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A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain radiating to his left arm. His ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

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A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with 90 minutes of crushing chest pain radiating to his left arm. He is diaphoretic and anxious. ECG shows 3mm ST elevation in leads V2-V4. His blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, heart rate 75 bpm. What is the most appropriate immediate next step in management?

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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 78-year-old male on warfarin presents with dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain after a fall. INR is 7.0. A chest CT is performed (image attached). After initial resuscitation, what is the MOST appropriate next step?

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A 40-year-old man presents with fever, pleuritic chest pain, and cough. A chest X-ray shows a pleural effusion. What is the next step in management?

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A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents to the emergency department with sudden onset, severe chest pain radiating to his back. He is diaphoretic and anxious. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 78-year-old male on warfarin presents to the ED after a fall. He complains of dyspnea and right-sided chest pain. His INR is 5.0. Vitals: HR 110, BP 100/60, RR 28, SpO2 90% on room air. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

An 82-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with increasing shortness of breath and intermittent chest discomfort over the past week. She reports some difficulty swallowing larger food boluses recently but denies significant heartburn. Her past medical history includes hypertension and osteoarthritis. On examination, her vital signs are stable: BP 135/85 mmHg, HR 78 bpm, RR 18/min, SpO2 94% on room air, Temp 36.8°C. Auscultation of the chest reveals decreased breath sounds at the left base. A central venous catheter is noted in the right subclavian vein. Initial blood tests show a mild normocytic anaemia (Hb 105 g/L) and normal inflammatory markers. An urgent imaging study is performed. Considering the clinical presentation and the provided imaging study, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

An 82-year-old female presents with a 3-month history of intermittent retrosternal burning pain, worse after meals, and occasional shortness of breath on exertion. Vital signs are stable. Physical exam unremarkable. A chest X-ray is performed. Considering the findings on the image, what is the most appropriate initial management step?

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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with sudden onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. He has a history of atrial fibrillation and has been taking warfarin for the past 5 years. His INR is currently 6.0. A CT scan of the chest is performed (image attached). What is the MOST appropriate initial management step?

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A 60-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath. He has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is a current smoker. On examination, he is tachypneic and has decreased breath sounds on the right side. A chest X-ray reveals a large right-sided pneumothorax. What is the most appropriate initial management?

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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male on warfarin presents post-fall with dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain. INR is 4.8. Vitals: HR 115, BP 95/60, RR 26, SpO2 89% on air. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male on warfarin presents with pleuritic chest pain and mild dyspnea. INR is 4.5. The image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate initial intervention?

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A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to his back. He describes the pain as tearing in nature. He has a history of hypertension and is a smoker. On examination, his blood pressure is 180/110 mmHg in the right arm and 160/100 mmHg in the left arm. His heart rate is 110 bpm, and he has diminished pulses in the left radial artery. A chest X-ray shows a widened mediastinum. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with sudden onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. He reports a recent fall but denies any significant trauma. He has a history of atrial fibrillation and is currently taking warfarin. His INR is 6.5. A CT scan of the chest is performed (image attached). What is the MOST appropriate immediate next step in management?

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A 60-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to his back. He describes the pain as tearing in nature. His blood pressure is 180/100 mmHg in the right arm and 160/90 mmHg in the left arm. On examination, there is a new diastolic murmur heard best at the right sternal border. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

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A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute onset chest pain radiating to his left arm and jaw, accompanied by diaphoresis and nausea. He has a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hyperlipidemia. On examination, his blood pressure is 160/95 mmHg, heart rate is 95 bpm, respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. An ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Initial troponin levels are elevated. He is given aspirin and clopidogrel in the emergency department. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort, particularly after meals. He has a history of well-controlled hypertension. An X-ray is performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

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A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of progressive difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids. He also reports regurgitation of undigested food and occasional chest pain. He has lost 5 kg over this period. On examination, there are no abnormalities noted. A barium swallow study shows a 'bird-beak' appearance of the lower esophagus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric pain, especially when lying down. He has a history of GORD, hypertension and COPD. His vitals are stable. An X-ray is performed. What is the MOST likely underlying cause of his presentation?

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A 72-year-old woman presents with sudden onset shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. She had knee surgery 10 days ago. She has a history of hypertension. On examination, she is anxious, respiratory rate is 24, heart rate 105, BP 130/80, SpO2 92% on room air. Lungs are clear. ECG shows sinus tachycardia. There is mild swelling in the operated leg. Considering the likely diagnosis, which initial investigation is most appropriate?

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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 78-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of intermittent upper abdominal pain radiating to the chest and mild dysphagia. He denies shortness of breath or fever. Vital signs are stable. A chest X-ray is obtained. Considering the radiographic findings in the context of the patient's presentation, what is the most appropriate immediate management plan?

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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male on warfarin presents with sudden onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain after a fall. His INR is 4.5. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

An 82-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a 3-month history of intermittent retrosternal chest discomfort, worse after meals, and mild shortness of breath on exertion. They report occasional regurgitation but deny significant dysphagia. Past medical history includes hypertension and osteoarthritis. Medications are perindopril and paracetamol. On examination, vital signs are stable, and lung sounds are clear. A chest X-ray is performed. Based on the findings in the image, what is the most appropriate next step in management or investigation?

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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old patient presents with intermittent chest discomfort and increasing shortness of breath, particularly after meals. Vitals are stable. Physical examination is unremarkable. A chest X-ray is performed. Considering the radiographic findings in the context of the patient's symptoms, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

An 82-year-old patient presents to their GP with a 3-month history of intermittent retrosternal chest discomfort, often described as a burning sensation, worse after meals and when lying flat. They also report mild shortness of breath on exertion and occasional regurgitation, but deny significant dysphagia or weight loss. Past medical history includes hypertension and osteoarthritis. Medications are perindopril and paracetamol. On examination, vital signs are stable (BP 130/80, HR 75, RR 16, SpO2 97% on air), and lung sounds are clear. A chest X-ray is performed as part of the workup. Based on the clinical context and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate next step in investigation?

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A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with crushing chest pain radiating to his left arm and jaw. He is diaphoretic and appears anxious. An ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

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A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department complaining of exertional chest pain that has been increasing in frequency and severity over the past month. He describes the pain as a pressure-like sensation in the center of his chest, radiating to his left arm, and associated with shortness of breath. The pain typically occurs after walking two blocks and resolves with rest. He denies any recent changes in his medications or lifestyle. On examination, his blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, heart rate is 78 bpm, and oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. An ECG shows normal sinus rhythm with no acute ST-segment changes. Troponin levels are within normal limits. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

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A 45-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe chest pain radiating to his left arm, shortness of breath, and diaphoresis. He has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia. On examination, he is diaphoretic, and his blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. An ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

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A 65-year-old patient with a history of DVT presents with sudden onset dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. Examination is unremarkable except for mild tachypnoea. Wells score is 4. Which initial investigation is most appropriate in the diagnostic pathway?

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X-ray of hiatal hernia
Image by Ahmed Farhat, Daryn Towle CC BY 4.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents with increasing shortness of breath and epigastric discomfort, particularly after meals. He has a history of well-controlled hypertension and takes aspirin daily. An X-ray is performed. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

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A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of fever, productive cough with greenish sputum, and pleuritic chest pain. She has a history of asthma and is currently on salbutamol and fluticasone inhalers. On examination, her temperature is 38.5°C, respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. Auscultation reveals decreased breath sounds and crackles in the right lower lung field. A chest X-ray shows a right lower lobe consolidation. What is the most appropriate initial antibiotic therapy for this patient, considering Australian guidelines?

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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 68-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of acute onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. He reports that the pain started suddenly this morning and has been gradually worsening. He has a history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation, for which he takes warfarin. He denies any recent trauma or injury. On examination, his vital signs are: heart rate 115 bpm, blood pressure 95/60 mmHg, respiratory rate 30 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation 87% on room air. Auscultation reveals decreased breath sounds on the right side. The patient appears pale and is diaphoretic. His INR is 6.5. A CT scan of the chest is performed, and the relevant image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

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CT scan showing hemothorax caused by warfarin use
Image by Cevik Y CC BY 3.0 · Source

A 72-year-old male presents to the ED with sudden onset shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain. He has a history of atrial fibrillation and has been taking warfarin for the past 5 years. His INR is currently 6.5. A CT scan of the chest is performed (image attached). What is the MOST appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient?

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A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to his back. He describes the pain as tearing in nature. His blood pressure is 180/100 mmHg in the right arm and 160/90 mmHg in the left arm. He has a history of hypertension and is a smoker. An ECG shows no acute ischemic changes. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

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A 55-year-old male presents with chest pain that radiates to his left arm and jaw, accompanied by diaphoresis and nausea. ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to his back. He describes the pain as tearing in nature. He has a history of hypertension and is a smoker. On examination, his blood pressure is 180/110 mmHg in the right arm and 160/100 mmHg in the left arm. His heart rate is 110 bpm, and he has a new diastolic murmur. An ECG shows left ventricular hypertrophy but no ischemic changes. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

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A 62-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with acute onset of chest pain and shortness of breath. She describes the pain as sharp and worse with inspiration. She has a history of deep vein thrombosis and is currently on warfarin. On examination, her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm, respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Her jugular venous pressure is elevated, and she has clear lung fields on auscultation. An ECG shows sinus tachycardia with right axis deviation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

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A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset chest pain and shortness of breath that started 2 hours ago while he was gardening. He describes the pain as a tightness across his chest, radiating to his left arm. He has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, and he is a current smoker. On examination, his blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm, respiratory rate is 22 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. He appears anxious and diaphoretic. An ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management step?

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